Question by Ray: Need help with a home poker game?
Ok, I need some opinions on a dilemma on a home poker game. Lets say someone goes all-in and the other person asks them to count it. The better replies 6,000 and the caller calls based on that count. After all is said and done, the person actually had 8,000. Is the caller required to pay the full amount of 8,000, even though the better only said 6000 during the count. Just to clarify, there is no “dealer” or floor person. What is the protocol on this situation. Thanks in advance.
Give your answer to this question below!
The player who placed the bet must reveal their hand first.
A player who makes the bet that is ultimately called must open up their hand first. The players who called the bet have the option to reveal their hand or muck their cards.
Although, in casino you’ll probably have to pay the full 8,000, but in home games, the other guy we were making the decision on calling that “All-in” might change his mind because of the 2,000.
What happen to me once was that i had some chips left, and i asked for a re-buy. I didn’t immediately receive the chips, and i went all in and the dealer said that will also include the money that is not on the table.
Either way, that was kind bad, because on that second i someone could have read my reaction and cause a minimal gain or lost.
Well, the correct protocol with no dealer or referee would have been for the player who’s chip count was requested (the bettor) to stack his chips up for his opponent to see so they could both easily count them. That way, the caller in equally responsible for counting the chips and his mistake would have contributed to the error. In this case, the caller should be required to pay the entire 8,000 chips.
I’m assuming this wasn’t done, in which case I feel the caller (who apparently lost the hand) to only be required to pay 6,000, since the bettor did not give him the correct count and he based his decision on that player’s mistake. I also agree with the earlier poster who said if the caller had won, he should receive the bettor’s entire chip stack (assuming he had the bettor covered).
Good luck.
NO! The person who went all-in miscounted so he loses out on the extra $ 2000.
Reading this…there are a few options.
http://www.homepokertourney.com/docs/rulebook/roberts-rules-of-poker-version-11-fullsize.pdf
If the caller won the hand here and had the bettor “covered”, the bettor is eliminated. Section 15, rule 20.
If the bettor won the hand, its more unclear.
Reading Sect. 3 under “betting and raising” Rule 16. It sounds like he should only have to call the 6k because the error wasn’t found before the betting round and showdown was completed. But i am not convinced this would be the correct action according to the link attached. If the bettor won though and he miscounted, I personally would rule, the miscounter gets the shaft in either scenario. Loses all if he loses (and is covered) or wins 6k if he wins. The exception to this would be if it was found before cards were flipped up, then I would do what Sec. 14 Rule 12 says.
Section 14 Rule 12 says, it has to be corrected to 8k, and I would give the caller the chance to reconsider calling the bet if the cards havent been flipped up yet.
thats what you get for playing home poker there is like a 50 percent chance that they are going to cheat at home which is very likely since cops can’t do anything.
All in means all in. So if the guy actually has 8k in chips and is all in, then he has 8k in the pot. So that’s what the call amount should be.
You have to pay it. The words “all in” were said and there was a call. So it really doesn’t matter the amount because its all the chips. You have to watch them count it and verify.